If I park a car at the top of a hill, release the brakes, and get out of the car, letting it roll down the hill causing damage and injuring and killing a few people, I wonder if I can take 'the god defence' and say, "Well, I just set it in motion. I can't be held responsible for what
the car did, or the people failing to get out of its way. And look how neatly the car is resting at the bottom of the hill."
The car is inanimate. It does not have free will. It does not have will at all. It cannot make any choices, good or bad. Someone has to steer the car, it cannot steer itself.
Unlike us.
But the question is actually a red herring for the real issue of whether an omniscient omnipotent deity should be held responsible for such outcomes for actions it allegedly set in motion.
Omniscient/omnipotent are not my words or description.
I thought the question was straight-forward, or at least I was answering that which WAS straightforward. Does foreknowledge take away free will. All we need is one instance to show that it did not... to disprove the statement that it does take away free will. Such as yours below:
There are many scenarios in which the actions of a person or thing are predictable.
If you want to get into something deeper, then that is fine (though it will have to wait until tomorrow). But I was responding the thread question, and nothing more.
Peace,
tammy