Sorry for the brief reply: I wrote a lengthier in-depth version, but it disappeared due to a track-pad malfunction (frustrating when that happens!).
Anyway, I wanted to ask Latin Thunder about this eyebrow-raiser:
LatinThunder said-
It should be used in conjunction with the Torah and the Talmud.
Really? Gutsy move (which you've claimed before), but how do you square that claim of reliance on the Jewish Talmud with your professed belief in Jesus, who constantly deprecated those serpent-like Pharisees for their reliance on man-made rules?
You DO understand that the Talmud wasn't even assembled in written form until a few hundred years AFTER Jesus died, and contained a written record of extra-Torahic interpretations which were the SAME rabbinical man-made laws added to amplify upon the written Law of Moses, a practice Jesus vehemently protested against?
Oh, and with all the Bible study you're done, surely you can answer this question?
Per the Bible, WHEN did Jehovah FIRST prohibit the spilling of the blood of another human being?
Adam