DDog:
I'm not sure that we are all working with the same definition for "foreordained"
That is likely part (if not most) of our problem here
I think or I thought, that the "Westminister Catechism" used the word the way Paul did in Romans 8:29 where it seems that you can't have one without the other.
"For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son"
You can't have predestination without Foreordination, but you can have foreordination without predestination. Ergo my argument regarding the reprobate, and the whole digression into Greek.
An example, with some scriptural basis . The sea has it's bounds set (I have no scriptural backing for the use of the term, but predestined might be applicable here as an analogy - it still doesn't fit the "Elect" theme for the use of the word, though). The wind does not. Yet both are foreordained.
The problem is, how does he know or determine? I say, He knows by decree. You seem to say, He knows by learning in advance.
When did I ever say that?
I told you already, I don't hold to Arminian doctrine.
I agree - it's by decree.
"worked it all out" Actively by decree?
Actively, before creation actually began.
It's not my pleasure that is important, it is God's.
You don't think I know that?
I'm talking about your intellectual satisfication with my position.
IMHO God is laughing His socks off, at our vain attempts to understand Him.
Just because He created darkness doesn't mean that any is found in the Creator.
Where does scripture say he created darkness?
Remember my example of Government. Are our law makers (government) guilty of the laws they make, simply for defining the laws (sin) or for putting them into place?
They are responsible for making them, and for their consequences.
When they subordinate such duties to States, Counties, and Police forces, that responsibility is also devolved.
We are responsible for keeping them, and bear the consequences for not doing so.
There is a distinct parallel with God's laws, IMHO.
Is the lump (of Rom.9:21) neutral or tainted with sin?
I thought I had already clarified that I think it's the whole lump of "totally depraved" humanity, a few pages back. All the examples Paul uses are so. He doesn't allude to Adam, in this context, even once.
It says that the two came from the same "lump" (of Holy clay?) It is a good question. Could it be Holy?
God makes something unholy out of that which is unholy?
I'm sorry, but I'm disagreeable to that concept, and I dont think you have scriptural warrant for it.
You might prove me wrong