Do I imagine it or did I detect a
shadow of a doubt?
aqwsed1234 : The fact that "theos" lacks the article in John 1:1c
does not automatically make it indefinite.
aqwsed1234 : In this context, the absence of the article does not necessarily
mean that "theos" should be indefinite.
aqwsed1234 : Even scholars like Murray Harris acknowledge that “a god” would
be grammatically possible but theologically inappropriate ...
aqwsed1234 : Even Jason BeDuhn, while sympathetic to the NWT in some
respects, acknowledges that the Word was divine (not “a god”) better captures
the original Greek intent...
but
Jason BeDuhn : "The meaning is the same in either case ..." (Truth in
Translation, 2003, p.124)
Philip B. Harner : At a number of
points in this study we have seen that anarthrous predicate nouns preceding the
verb may be primarily qualitative in force yet may also have some connotation
of definiteness. The categories of qualitativeness and definiteness, that is,
are not mutually exclusive, and frequently it is a delicate exegetical issue
for the interpreter to decide which emphasis a Greek writer had in mind...In
John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent
that the noun cannot be regarded as definite. ("Qualitative Anarthrous
Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1", Journal of Biblical Literature,
Vol. 92, No.1, p.87)
So, in fact, you agree that John 1:1c can be translated as "the Word was a god" but it doesn't fit your theology.