Hi dan
Unfortunately for you the sahidic coptic proves the witnesses correct on "a god" as regards John 1:1 written a century before trinity and john 20:28 is not doctrine but a surprised statement from thomas at an occurence when he sees Jesus!
The bible will always states what happens at accurrences straightforwardly.
Take this one with Paul.
Acts 28:4-6 (New International Version)
4 When the islanders saw the snake hanging from his hand, they said to each other, "This man must be a murderer; for though he escaped from the sea, Justice has not allowed him to live." 5 But Paul shook the snake off into the fire and suffered no ill effects. 6 The people expected him to swell up or suddenly fall dead, but after waiting a long time and seeing nothing unusual happen to him, they changed their minds and said he was a god.
the greek word used here is "queon" and can in context refer to G-od but clearly not in this verse due to context of refering to Paul. So the translators put "a god" where it is used here but elsewhere when in reference it used for God himself it is translated G-od. A person could translate this "they thought he was God"
Is Paul God then?
He doesn't deny it. It only describes the event and what the islanders thought.
Thomas exclamation in a similar vain is not a statement of doctrine unlike Jesus clear instructions.
Again I prefer Jesus's words rather than making assumptions from occurances that do not indicate anything.
And considering after this event Paul and the other early Christians still refered to Jesus's father as their God so if apparently it was so pivotal why didn't it change their viewpoint if you are taking it as a doctrinal change by thomas?