How did JWs arrive at a clearer understanding of what the Bible teaches than other Christian denominations?

by slimboyfat 164 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete
    The idea that some ancient traditions viewed Yahweh as subordinate to El Elyon (The Most High) is rooted in speculative interpretations of early Hebrew texts. This theory often emerges from a misunderstanding of passages like Deuteronomy 32:8-9, where Yahweh is seen as receiving his inheritance from the Most High. However, within the broader biblical canon, especially in the prophetic and wisdom literature, Yahweh is clearly identified as the Most High God, Creator, and Sovereign of all (see Isaiah 45:5-7, Psalm 83:18).

    You site precisely the texts (2nd Isa and some Psalms, Genesis/Ex examples= Redactor's interpolation combining El Shaddai and Yahweh traditions) that identify Yahweh as the Most High, however as you probably know many other texts do not, and many others obfuscate on the point. What you describe as a 'misunderstanding' was apparently a foundational tenet for some that lasted centuries. Yahweh was Israel's God but The Most High was The God of all. Monotheism of 2nd Isaiah never was universally adopted, a compromise was the second power concept reflected in many textual examples:

    Ex 23:20 Behold, I send an Angel before thee, to keep thee in the way, and to bring thee into the place which I have prepared.
    21 Beware of him, and obey his voice, provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgressions: for my name is in him.

    Even as late as the Clementine Recognitions

    For every nation has an angel, to whom God has committed the government of that nation; and when one of these appears, although he be thought and called God by those over whom he presides, yet, being asked, he does not give such testimony to himself. For the Most High God, who alone holds the power of all things, has divided all the nations of the earth into seventy-two parts, and over these he hath appointed angels as princes. But to the one among the archangels who is greatest, was committed the government of those who, before all others, received the worship and knowledge of the Most High God (Rec. 2.42)

    And Ascension of Isaiah:

    35. And I saw the Lord (Christ) and the second Angel, and they were standing.
    36. And the second whom I saw was on he left of my Lord. And I asked: "Who is this?" and he said unto me: "Worship Him, for He is the Angel of the Holy Spirit, who speaketh in thee and the rest of the righteous."...40. And I saw how my Lord and the Angel of the Spirit worshipped, and they both together praised God.

    The idea that Yahweh had gone from a son of El who receives Israel to becoming The Great Angel of the Most High in charge of Israel, isn't a difficult leap. Somehow, though appreciating that process of other sons of El becoming recast as angels, I had not seen the potential for the same to have occurred for Yahweh, at least in circles that had not equated Yahweh with The Most High. (like 2nd Isaiah and a redactor of the J and P traditions). There is much more to this.

    All of this emphasizes the diversity of theological outlooks preserved in the texts themselves.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @peacefulpete

    Thank you for your detailed response. Let me address the points you've raised regarding Yahweh's identity, the "Most High," and how these ideas evolved within the Hebrew and early Christian traditions. I'll provide a clear refutation of the notion that Yahweh was originally viewed as subordinate to El Elyon and that this distinction was foundational for centuries, followed by a discussion on the development of monotheism in the Hebrew Bible.

    You mention that the idea of Yahweh being subordinate to El Elyon (the Most High) is a misunderstanding based on passages like Deuteronomy 32:8-9. Let’s clarify this context. Deuteronomy 32:8-9 refers to the division of the nations according to the "sons of God" or divine beings, with Yahweh receiving Israel as His inheritance. This passage does reflect an early worldview where Yahweh was particularly associated with Israel. However, it does not imply that Yahweh was ontologically inferior to El Elyon or that He was merely one of many deities, with El Elyon presiding over Him.

    In the broader biblical narrative, especially as monotheism developed, Yahweh is increasingly identified as the one true God—not simply the God of Israel but the sovereign ruler of all nations and the Creator of the universe. This is evident in prophetic books, especially in Isaiah, where Yahweh declares: "I am the Lord, and there is no other; apart from me, there is no God" (Isaiah 45:5). Such texts unequivocally affirm the supremacy of Yahweh as the only God. What you describe as obfuscation in other texts likely reflects a process of theological development where Israel moved from a form of henotheism (acknowledging the existence of other gods but worshiping only Yahweh) to a fully monotheistic belief, where Yahweh is not just Israel's God but the God of all creation.

    You point to examples such as Exodus 23:20-21, where the "Angel of the Lord" is said to bear God's name and authority. This passage and others like it have been interpreted in various ways, but they do not establish Yahweh as subordinate to a higher god, nor do they imply a fundamental duality within the Hebrew understanding of God. The "Angel of the Lord" is often understood as a manifestation of Yahweh Himself, not a separate deity or intermediary.

    The notion of the "second power" in early Jewish thought is an intriguing concept, but it is not evidence of a persistent belief in Yahweh's subordination. Rather, the "second power" refers to a divine figure or agent who functions with God's authority, often viewed in hindsight as foreshadowing the New Testament revelation of the Logos (the Word) or Christ. This interpretation does not contradict the monotheism of Deutero-Isaiah or other parts of the Hebrew Bible. Instead, it can be understood as part of the complex and rich theological development that eventually culminated in the Christian understanding of the Trinity.

    In early Christian texts, such as Philippians 2:9-11, Jesus is explicitly identified with Yahweh, demonstrating that the New Testament writers did not see a tension between Jesus being the Son of God and being fully divine. The "Angel of the Lord" motif was often interpreted by the Church Fathers as a pre-incarnate appearance of the Logos (the Son), showing continuity between the Old Testament concept of divine agency and the New Testament revelation of Christ's divinity.

    You reference Clementine Recognitions and the Ascension of Isaiah as examples of texts that preserve a diversity of theological outlooks, where angels or intermediaries are seen as governing nations. However, these are later apocryphal works that reflect speculative theology rather than mainstream biblical or Christian orthodoxy. While these texts provide insight into various streams of thought circulating in antiquity, they should not be taken as representative of the core biblical or early Christian view of God.

    In both of these examples, the role of angels or intermediaries is highlighted, but neither text presents a coherent alternative to the monotheism that was established in the Hebrew Scriptures and fully developed in the New Testament. Instead, they reflect speculative interpretations that ultimately do not challenge the foundational belief that Yahweh is the Most High God. The New Testament and the early Church Fathers made clear that Christ, as the Logos, was co-equal and co-eternal with the Father, a position solidified in the Nicene Creed.

    You argue that the monotheism of Deutero-Isaiah was not universally adopted and that early Hebrew thought preserved theological diversity. While it's true that Israel's theological understanding evolved over time, the trajectory of the Hebrew Scriptures points decisively toward absolute monotheism. The development from an early form of henotheism (where Yahweh was seen as one God among others) to monotheism (where Yahweh is the only true God) is well documented.

    By the time of the exilic and post-exilic prophets, the belief in Yahweh's exclusive divinity had become firmly established. Passages like Isaiah 44:6 ("I am the first and I am the last; besides me, there is no god") make it clear that Yahweh alone is God, and this belief became foundational for both Judaism and Christianity. The New Testament writers fully embraced this monotheistic framework, while also revealing the triune nature of God in the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

    Your argument that Yahweh was once considered subordinate to El Elyon is based on speculative interpretations of certain texts and does not hold up against the broader biblical canon. The development of Israel's understanding of God moves from a context where Yahweh is the national deity of Israel to one where Yahweh is recognized as the one true God of all creation. This theological evolution does not undermine monotheism but instead affirms it. Additionally, later Jewish and Christian interpretations, particularly the doctrine of the Trinity, are not rooted in polytheism or angelic subordination, but in the consistent biblical teaching that God is one in essence and three in personhood.

    The texts you cite, such as the Clementine Recognitions and the Ascension of Isaiah, reflect later theological speculation and should not be confused with mainstream Jewish or Christian theology. They may provide interesting perspectives, but they do not represent the biblical or orthodox Christian understanding of Yahweh as fully divine and the Most High God. The Christian doctrine of the Trinity, as affirmed in the Nicene Creed, maintains that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are distinct persons but share the same divine essence, fully in line with biblical revelation.

    Thus, the claim that Yahweh was originally subordinate to El Elyon is not supported by the totality of Scripture or by early Christian doctrine.

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete
    For Philo, the Logos did not become human; it remained a distant mediator, a non-personal force that facilitated the interaction between God and the material world.

    That is an interesting topic. Philo seemingly allows for this as he does say:

    Logos that is called God... For no name belongs rightly to the Absolute, who
    is of a nature to exist simply, not to be described. There is an old legend that the deity at different times visits different cities in human form,
    is an old legend that the deity at different times visits
    different cities in human form, seeking out cases of unright-
    eousness and lawlessness. Perhaps it is not true, but even
    so it is profitable and expedient that it should be current.
    And Scripture, though it employs more reverent conceptions
    of the Absolute, does at the same time liken God to man,
    speaking of his face, voice, anger, and so forth, for the profit
    of the learner. Some are so dull that they cannot conceive of God at all without a body
    of God at all without a body.

    It seems Philo is suggesting that the Logos (the deity) may have actually appeared as flesh, but he was not sure of the literalness of the legends. What seems clear is that in at least some discussions he did personify the Logos to a high degree.

    What is the man who was created? And how is that man distinguished who was made after the image of God? (#Ge 2:7). This man was created as perceptible to the senses, and in the similitude of a Being appreciable only by the intellect; but he who in respect of his form is intellectual and incorporeal, is the similitude of the archetypal model as to appearance, and he is the form of the principal character; but this is the word of God, the first beginning of all things, the original species or the archetypal idea, the first measure of the universe. ...

    Notice he describes this 'word of God' as a incorporeal "being". I'm not sure just how literally he conceived of it (or more importantly his readers) but then as I said all of this is imagery of invisible stuff, (he like many understood the Primeval History as allegory) so where does metaphor start and end.

    It seems relevant that within the larger Neoplatonic concept of Logos as a bridge between spirit and corporeal, we do find traditions that describe the Logos figure as sharing in the corporeal including having flesh. (Osiris/Dionysus).

    So, while Philo unsurprisingly doesn't expressly say his Logos took on flesh he does see in Moses and Aaron and other human characters the 'internal Logos' and 'utterance Logos' embodied. He also leaves open the possibility that legends that say Logos/God did take human from may have happened.

    Also parallel the Christ/Logos of Paul et.al. is the role as high priest.

    For there are, it would seem, two temples of God — the

    one, this world in which God's firstborn, the divine Logos,
    is highpriest ; and the other the rational soul, whereof the
    true man is priest, whose material image is he who performs the ancestral prayers and sacrifices,
    the ancestral prayers and sacrifices, who is commanded to
    put on the aforesaid coat (of finest linen), the counterpart of the whole
    heaven, that the world may join with man and man with
    the universe in the rite.

    So, here we have Philo describing Logos as a High Priest whose rite affects the world. Of course, the writer of John or Paul had something new to add to the story. The propitiatory death (sacrifice) of the Logos/Christ. Philo (or his Alexandrian school) didn't come up with that one though I believe he, being fond of allegory, could have appreciated it. Paul, remember, claimed to have drawn his Christ from scripture typology in Philonic style.

    Regarding your comment that Christianity especially since Nicaea have a distinct formulation of God. That is true. Yet there were steps along the way. Origen as you know mentions Philo as one of his predecessors and shared many notions of freewill and the divine. They later declared his ideas heretical. It is also interesting that the Nicene Creed includes the words,:

    God from God, Light from Light, True God from true God, begotten not made, one in being with the Father. Through him all things were made. For us and for our salvation he came down from heaven.”

    Which appears to be quoting Philo.

    In the same manner God, being his own light, is perceived by himself alone, nothing and no other being co-operating with or assisting him, a being at all able to contribute to pure comprehension of his existence; But these men have arrived at the real truth, who form their ideas of God from God, of light from light.”(Praem. 45-46)
  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Sorry watching Tv and typing.

    More on Logos' role as High Priest:

    For it was indispensable that the man who was consecrated to the Father of the world should have as a paraclete, his son, the being most perfect in all virtue, to procure forgiveness of sins, and a supply of unlimited blessings.”

    (Mos. 2.134)

    And this same Logos is continually a suppliant to the immortal God on behalf of the mortal race, which is exposed to affliction and misery; and is also the ambassador, sent by the Ruler of all, to the subject race. And the Logos rejoices…saying, “And I (as Aaron) stood in the midst, between the Lord and you” (Num. 16:48)

    Her. 205-206)

    As you know we could keep adding to these examples of detailed personification that even if Philo had not literalized his readers easily could have.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @peacefulpete

    Philo of Alexandria indeed had some influence on early Christian thought, particularly in his development of the concept of the Logos (Word). However, while some of Philo's language may bear resemblance to later Christian doctrines, there are significant differences that show why Philo's Logos is not the same as the Christian understanding of Christ as the divine Logos.

    Philo's Logos is primarily a philosophical concept, heavily influenced by Greek thought, particularly Platonism and Stoicism. For Philo, the Logos was an intermediary between the transcendent God and the material world. It was a tool that helped God create and govern the universe, but it was impersonal, abstract, and did not become incarnate in the way that the New Testament describes.

    In contrast, the Christian understanding of the Logos, particularly as presented in John 1:1-14, is that the Logos is not merely an intermediary force or principle but is personal, fully divine, and became incarnate as Jesus Christ. John explicitly states that "the Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us" (John 1:14). This is a clear assertion that the Logos took on human nature, something Philo never suggested. While Philo entertained the possibility of God appearing in human form in legends, this is very different from the Christian doctrine of the Incarnation, where the Logos actually becomes a human being.

    Philo may have speculated on legends of God taking human form, but he did not commit to this idea in a theological sense. His Logos remained an abstract mediator, never fully taking on flesh. Philo’s musings about God visiting cities in human form are purely speculative and not central to his philosophy. In contrast, the Incarnation is the cornerstone of Christian belief. The Logos, as understood by Christians, became fully human in the person of Jesus Christ while remaining fully divine. This is a decisive departure from Philo's understanding.

    While there are some parallels between Philo’s thoughts and early Christian writings, especially in the use of the term Logos, Philo’s ideas do not directly inform the Christian doctrine of the Trinity or the Incarnation. The Nicene Creed’s statements, such as "God from God, Light from Light, True God from true God," are not quoting Philo but are part of the Church's development of its Christological doctrine in response to heresies like Arianism. These phrases affirm that Christ is of the same divine substance as the Father, fully equal to God, which Philo never claimed about his Logos.

    Philo does indeed refer to the Logos as a "high priest" in an allegorical sense, but this is not to be confused with the Christian understanding of Christ as the true High Priest. In Hebrews 4:14-15 and 7:26-27, Christ is described as the High Priest who offered himself as a perfect sacrifice for sins. This is a unique role that Philo’s Logos never assumes. For Philo, the Logos is an abstract principle, whereas for Christians, Jesus Christ, the Logos, is a person who performs a real, historical act of redemption through his death and resurrection.

    So Philo's writings, particularly his use of the concept of the Logos, are fascinating, but they require careful interpretation, especially when viewed in light of later Christian theology. While Philo's Logos concept was influential, it is essential to distinguish between Philo's philosophical ideas and the Christian understanding of the Logos, as articulated in the New Testament. Philo’s Logos is not equivalent to the Christian understanding of Jesus Christ as the divine Logos. Philo was a Hellenistic Jewish philosopher who employed the concept of the Logos as an intermediary between the transcendent God and the created world. For Philo, the Logos was more of a philosophical abstraction, a mediator between God and the material world, a divine reason or order, but not a distinct person who took on flesh as Jesus did in Christian theology.

    In contrast, the New Testament's portrayal of the Logos (John 1:1) presents the Logos as not only preexistent but as God Himself, who "became flesh and dwelt among us" (John 1:14). This identification of the Logos with Jesus Christ is crucial and sets the Christian understanding apart from Philo's. While Philo speaks of the Logos as an intermediary or even a "suppliant" to God on behalf of humanity, Christian theology teaches that Jesus Christ is fully God and fully man, not just an intermediary or high priest.

    The idea of Jesus as the High Priest, as articulated in Hebrews 4:14-16, goes far beyond what Philo suggests in his writings. Philo’s understanding of the Logos as a "suppliant" or intermediary fits more into a philosophical framework, while the Christian understanding of Jesus as the High Priest is deeply rooted in Jewish sacrificial traditions and fulfilled in the New Covenant. Hebrews emphasizes that Christ is the perfect High Priest who not only intercedes but also offers Himself as the ultimate sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 7:27). This role is unique and transcends the role of any human or abstract mediator.

    It is true that early Christian theologians were aware of Philo's writings and that his ideas about the Logos may have influenced some of their vocabulary. However, Christian theology developed its own distinct understanding of the Logos, which is deeply Christocentric. The Logos, in Christian theology, is not merely a philosophical intermediary but the Second Person of the Trinity, coequal with the Father and the Holy Spirit.

    Finally, Philo's Logos remains an impersonal force in his writings, never incarnating or becoming a man. In contrast, the New Testament presents the Logos as a personal, divine being who took on human nature (John 1:14), a key doctrine of Christianity. The High Priestly role of Jesus as presented in the New Testament is deeply relational, tied to the unique identity of Jesus as both God and man. Philo’s abstract Logos never becomes personal in this way.

    While Philo’s ideas may have provided some philosophical tools that early Christian thinkers could utilize, his concept of the Logos is fundamentally different from the Christian understanding. Philo’s Logos is an intermediary, impersonal force, while the Christian Logos is a person—Jesus Christ—who is fully God and fully man. The Nicene Creed's language about the relationship between the Father and the Son, and the Incarnation, does not draw directly from Philo but from the biblical revelation and the Church's theological reflection on that revelation.

    Thus, while Philo might have paved the way for some intellectual groundwork, his Logos remains a distant, philosophical concept, whereas the Christian Logos is the personal, incarnate Son of God, who is worshipped as one with the Father and the Holy Spirit.

    In summary:

    • Philo's Logos is a philosophical concept, a mediating force between God and the world.
    • Christian Logos (Jesus Christ) is the incarnate Word of God, fully divine, fully human, and the perfect High Priest who offers Himself as the ultimate sacrifice.
    • While Philo's writings are intellectually interesting and may have influenced early Christian terminology, Christian doctrine of the Logos, particularly in terms of Christ's role as High Priest, goes far beyond anything Philo suggested. The Christian belief in the Logos is not just about mediation but about the incarnation of God Himself in the person of Jesus Christ, fulfilling the ultimate High Priestly role.

    Thus, while Philo’s writings may have “personified” the Logos to some degree, they never approached the full Christian understanding of the Logos as God made flesh, who is not only an intermediary but the Savior and High Priest of the world.

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete
    However, while some of Philo's language may bear resemblance to later Christian doctrines, there are significant differences that show why Philo's Logos is not the same as the Christian understanding of Christ as the divine Logos.

    Of course, I said that. Philo had not developed the idea of the Logos himself dying, that seems to have been the innovation of the earliest Christians. Philo had taken the language and concepts of Jewish philosopher Aristobulus and expanded upon them, Aristobulus ran with the philosophy of his mentors including Aristotle etc. That's how it works in the real world.

    Just how these earliest Christians arrived at their innovation is a matter of debate. Did they simply further the parallel mythotype drama which in some cases included a death and restoration? Had they drawn inferences from the OT stories of Jonah, the suffering servant, or perils of David, the curses of those hung on a tree? Had the group shared with the Qumran's Holy Ones in disavowing the Temple cult as corrupt?

    All the above would seem to do it pretty well.

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    According to Philo, the two powers of God are separated by God himself who is standing above in the midst of them (Her. 166). Referring to Genesis 18: 2 Philo claims that God and his two Powers (Beneficent and Regent) are in reality one. To the human mind they appear as a Triad, with God above the powers that belong to him: “For this cannot be so keen of spirit that, it can see Him who is above the powers that belong to Him, (namely) God, distinct from everything else. For so soon as one sets eyes on God, there also appear together with His being, the ministering powers, so that in place of one he makes the appearance of a triad (QG 4.2).”

    Philo of Alexandria | Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy (utm.edu)

    This Philonic concept of powers of God identified as a triad and allegorically represented in Genesis 18 story is a bit coincidental again.

    I've been reading about the book of Elchasai (65-114CE It rejects the Temple sacrifices, but our extant quotes are from a redacted form from the time of Trajan), what fragments we have described the Christ/Logos and Sophia/Wisdom/Holy Spirit as giant figures spanning from heaven to earth. The book also shares the mystic notion of Logos having been born and reborn as Prophets and figures from the Pentateuch. The lines between Jew and Christain are very short.


  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Just how different from Philo's Logos was Paul's?

    Col 1:16For in Him all things were created, things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities. All things were created through Him and for Him. 17 He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.

    Or as the Amplified Bible reads:

    And He Himself existed and is before all things, and in Him all things hold together. [His is the controlling, cohesive force of the universe.]

    Could not a reader understand his Christ as a intermediary, creative and pervasive force?


  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat

    Maybe, although most critical scholars don’t think Paul wrote Colossians.

    In terms of Paul’s view of Jesus’s prehuman existence, by far the best indication is Phil 2.5-11, while 1 Cor 8.4-6, 2 Cor 8.9, and a few other passages offer some insight.

    In Philippians 2, if we accept that Paul is here referring to Jesus’s prehuman existence, as most scholars do, I think the JW reading of the passage makes the best sense by far. In this passage, Jesus is clearly a heavenly being who is distinct from and subject to God. Instead of trying to usurp God’s position, with an implied contrast with either Adam or Satan, or both, he chose to come to earth as a human, and then he humbled himself even to the point of death. For that reason, God rewarded him and exalted him to a higher position than he originally had and, reflecting Jesus’s humility, this is all still to the glory of God, not himself. This passage so clearly shows that Jesus is a spirit being who is subordinate to God that trinitarians tie themselves in all sorts of knots trying to get it to say something else. It doesn’t flat out say that Jesus is an angel, but what is the name for a heavenly being that is subject to God and does his will? It seems pretty clear. One of the best treatments of the passage I’ve come across is this article by Jack Sanders. I can send a pdf if anyone wants to access it, it let me know.

    https://www.jstor.org/stable/3263720

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    @peacefulpete

    Your response raises some important and interesting points regarding the development of the concept of the Logos and its treatment by Philo and early Christians. However, I believe there are key differences between Philo's Logos and Paul's Christ as the divine Logos that are essential for understanding how the two are not the same. Philo’s Logos operates as a conceptual, almost abstract, intermediary between God and the world. He draws heavily from Greek philosophy, especially Stoicism and Platonism, using the Logos as a way to explain the relationship between the divine and the material world without compromising the absolute transcendence of God. Philo never understood the Logos as an incarnate being or one that could die; rather, for him, it is more like an emanation or aspect of God’s rational power and order. Philo’s Logos has no personal identity as a being who could suffer or die, which starkly contrasts with the Christian understanding of Jesus Christ.

    Paul’s depiction of Christ, particularly in Colossians 1:16-17, goes far beyond what Philo envisaged. Paul writes not merely about a cosmic principle but about a personal being who is fully divine and fully human. In this passage, Christ is portrayed as the agent of creation, through whom all things were made and in whom all things hold together. This is not just a Logos that orders the universe, but a personal, divine being intimately involved in creation, sustaining it, and redeeming it through incarnation, death, and resurrection.

    Unlike Philo's Logos, which is an impersonal intermediary, Paul's Christ is personal and relational, involved directly in the salvation of humanity. Paul declares that Christ’s incarnation, death, and resurrection were necessary for reconciling the world to God (Col. 1:20). This "innovation" among Christians isn't just a theological novelty but rather a unique claim about God’s intervention in history through the person of Jesus.

    Philo’s Logos mediates God’s power in a philosophical sense—an ordering principle of the cosmos. In contrast, Paul's Christ is a mediator in the personal sense, reconciling sinful humanity to God through his sacrificial death. For Paul, the Logos is not merely a force but a person who actively takes on human flesh (Phil. 2:6-8) and enters into human history in order to restore creation.

    You raise the question of whether a reader could understand Paul’s Christ as an intermediary, creative, and pervasive force. While Paul certainly presents Christ as the one in whom all things hold together, this is not in the detached, philosophical sense of Philo’s Logos. For Paul, Christ is not a distant intermediary but rather the incarnate Son of God who reconciles and redeems the world through His death and resurrection (Col. 1:19-20). This personal engagement in creation, redemption, and final reconciliation is what makes Paul’s understanding of the Logos fundamentally different from Philo’s.

    You mentioned Philo's concept of God and His two powers appearing as a triad. However, Philo's triad is not analogous to the Christian Trinity. Philo's triadic concept reflects an allegorical interpretation of God's powers (beneficence and rulership) rather than distinct persons in one divine essence. Christian Trinitarian theology speaks of three distinct persons—Father, Son, and Holy Spirit—who are consubstantial and co-eternal, sharing one divine essence, but each is a distinct person with relational roles in creation and redemption.

    Philo’s allegorical framework never reaches the level of personal relationships or roles within the Godhead that the Christian Trinity articulates. While Philo might be seen as using triadic language, it lacks the relational and incarnational dimensions central to Christian Trinitarian thought. Thus, any parallels between Philo's triad and the Christian Trinity remain superficial.

    In Colossians 1:16-17, Paul describes Christ as not only the agent of creation but also as pre-existent and eternally divine. The Amplified Bible rightly emphasizes that Christ is "before all things" and that "in Him all things hold together." This language goes beyond a simple intermediary force; it ascribes to Christ the active, sustaining role in creation, a role that only God can fulfill. This understanding of Christ as divine is at the heart of Christian belief in His pre-existence and equality with the Father.

    So while Philo and early Christians both use the term Logos, they diverge in profound ways. Philo's Logos is a philosophical concept, a mediator in a more abstract sense. Paul's Christ is a personal, divine, incarnate Logos—not just a cosmic force, but the Savior and Redeemer of humanity. The Christian understanding of the Logos as fully divine and personal was indeed a development beyond Philo, but it was grounded in the revelation of Jesus Christ, not in appropriations of pagan or philosophical myths.

    @slimboyfat

    While the authorship of Colossians is debated among some scholars, it is not universally rejected. Many reputable scholars defend Pauline authorship, citing stylistic and theological continuity with other undisputed letters of Paul. But even if one were to grant, for the sake of argument, that Paul didn’t write Colossians, this does not affect the interpretation of Philippians 2:5-11, which is universally accepted as Pauline. This means that the discussion should focus on Philippians, not on disputed letters like Colossians.

    You argue that Philippians 2:5-11 shows Christ as a "heavenly being" distinct from and subordinate to God. While it’s true that Philippians 2 refers to Christ’s pre-existence, it does not support the conclusion that Christ is a lesser heavenly being or an angel. In Philippians 2:6, Paul uses the phrase morphe theou, which refers to Christ being in the "form of God." The word morphe does not merely mean outward appearance but refers to the intrinsic nature of something. This has been demonstrated by various scholars who argue that morphe refers to Christ’s possession of divine attributes. Paul’s use of morphe theou asserts that Jesus had divine status and nature before His incarnation, not that He was a mere spirit or angelic being.

    The passage states that Christ "did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped" (harpagmon). This indicates that Christ already possessed equality with God, yet chose not to cling to it for His own advantage. The phrase "equality with God" points to Christ's divine status, not to a subordinate or angelic status. The idea that Christ was subordinate to God in essence contradicts this notion of equality, which Paul affirms.

    The term "emptied Himself" refers to the Incarnation, where Christ, though fully divine, chose to take on human nature and become obedient to death. This self-emptying involves the voluntary renunciation of divine privileges, not the divine nature itself. The passage does not imply that Christ was a lesser being who later received a higher status; rather, it speaks of the eternal Son of God humbling Himself and becoming man for the sake of humanity.

    You assert that the JW interpretation of Philippians 2 makes the best sense because it portrays Jesus as a subordinate heavenly being who is rewarded for His humility. This interpretation, however, is deeply flawed. While Philippians 2 does describe Christ as pre-existent, the text does not support the notion that He was merely a subordinate spirit or angelic being. The passage explicitly emphasizes Christ's equality with God (isa theo), making it clear that He possessed divine nature before the Incarnation. This equality is not something Jesus sought to exploit but something He voluntarily set aside to take on human form.

    The exaltation of Christ in Philippians 2:9-11 is not an indication that He was elevated from a lower status to a higher one in the divine hierarchy. Instead, it reflects the glorification of Christ’s humanity after His death and resurrection. The exaltation is the recognition of Christ’s lordship and the public acknowledgment of His divine authority by all creation. This glorification is given to Christ’s human nature, not His divine nature, which He already possessed. The JW interpretation confuses the exaltation of Christ’s humanity with a change in His divine status, which the passage does not support.

    Your argument relies heavily on the interpretation of harpagmos as something that is seized, implying that Christ did not have equality with God but refrained from trying to seize it. However, this is a misunderstanding of the term. The word harpagmos can refer to something that is seized or exploited for personal advantage. In the context of Philippians 2:6, it means that Christ, although equal with God, did not consider His equality with God something to be exploited for personal gain. This demonstrates Christ’s humility, not His inferiority. He did not grasp at divine privileges but emptied Himself by becoming human and humbling Himself to the point of death. This shows Christ's willingness to forgo His rightful divine prerogatives for the sake of humanity’s salvation, which aligns with Trinitarian theology.

    You claim that Jesus was exalted to a higher position than He originally had, implying that He was not fully divine before His exaltation. Philippians 2:9-11 speaks of God exalting Christ and giving Him the name above every name. This exaltation does not mean that Christ was elevated to divinity after being a lesser being. Rather, the exaltation refers to the glorification of Christ’s human nature. Christ, as the eternal Son of God, always possessed divine status, but in His incarnation, He took on human nature and, after His death and resurrection, was exalted in His humanity. The exaltation is the recognition and public acknowledgment of Christ’s universal lordship.

    The "Name above every name" is the name "Lord" (κύριος, kyrios), which is a divine title. This title signifies that Christ is the ruler over all creation, which aligns with the Old Testament title for God (YHWH). The exaltation of Christ as "Lord" is not a sign of inferiority but an acknowledgment of His divine authority over all creation, further confirming His divinity.

    The argument that Philippians 2:5-11 supports a non-Trinitarian reading where Christ is a subordinate heavenly being collapses under closer scrutiny. The passage affirms Christ’s pre-existence, equality with God, and voluntary humility in becoming human. The exaltation of Christ does not indicate that He was inferior to God but rather highlights the glorification of His humanity after His redemptive work.

    The Trinitarian interpretation remains consistent with the broader witness of Scripture, affirming that Christ, though fully divine, humbled Himself and took on human nature for the sake of humanity’s salvation. Far from undermining His divinity, Philippians 2:5-11 underscores both Christ’s divine status and His extraordinary humility.

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