LT
LT wrote: In the beginning he didn't need to obtain it at all, as he was performing 100% righteous acts.
DD wrote: Pure speculation!
Prove me wrong - name an unrighteous act...
I already have, but I'll name a few more.
Gen 3:3
but of the fruit of the tree in the middle of the garden, God has said, You shall not eat of it,
nor shall you touch it, lest you die.
Gen 3:4
And the serpent said to the woman, Dying you shall not die,
Gen 3:5
for God knows that in the day you eat of it, even your eyes shall be opened, and you shall be as God, knowing good and evil.
Gen 3:6
And the woman saw that the tree
was
good for food, and that it
was
pleasant to the eyes, and the tree
was
desirable to make
one
wise. And she took of its fruit and ate; and she also gave to her husband with her, and he ate.
1) Verse 3 Did God tell them not to touch it?
2) Verse 4 It looks to me that Eve agrees with the serpent, that God was lying, putting her faith in the serpent, not in God, calling God a liar.
3) Verse 6 That looks like lusting for food, pleasure, wisdom.
4) Why was Adam not protecting his wife from the serpent and his lies? Would that not be the righteous thing to do?
5) Adam put more faith in Eve than God, trusting her judgment regarding the fruit.
Judging by their attitude, I think there was trouble long before they ate the fruit.
There is no neutral word for righteousness...
What is wrong with "Innocent"?
It would follow that the first law would show up sin, and so it did.
Do we agree this passage includes apple eating?
1Timothy 1:9
knowing this, that Law
is not laid down for a righteous one, but for lawless and undisciplined ones, for ungodly and
sinful ones, for unholy and profane ones, for slayers of fathers and slayers of mothers, for murderers,
10 for fornicators, for homosexuals, for slave-traders, for liars, for perjurers, and if any other thing opposes sound doctrine,
I'm sorry to disappoint you, my friend. Neither you, I or EW could have done a better job than Adam. It was foreordained... Yet he did it, and he bears the responsibility and title for that action.
I'm not disappointed, because I know Adam perfectly represents the whole human race (including myself), right down to the human nature. But, as I read your post, you seem to be making the case that Adam was different and had a different nature, he was righteous or morally perfect (something we can never be this side of glory). The law he had was different or had a different purpose in that it wasn't "Mosaic". How (in your opinion) could this special man be worthy to impute sin to the whole race?
I'm still of the opinion that man wasn't created sinful,
Nor am I. He had not sinned until he broke the law, he became sinful when he broke the law. But, I do believe he had a sinful nature (innocent as he was) which drove him to sin or become sinful.
Other wise the statement "it was very good" would be a misnomer.
What if "it was very good" means that it was exactly what God wanted (innocent Adam in the garden)?
I guess you believe that the Holy Spirit wouldn't do His job.
You know fine well that I'm not saying that.
There is such a thing as progressive sanctification, though.
If he could live the whole law why would Adam need sanctification when he didn't sin?
I get to cut my teeth on this kinda stuff every Wednesday evening in live debate in fellowships.
Wish I could come.
D Dog