A couple of responses back, here, aqwsed12345 responded with 694 words less than three minutes after peacefulpete's post.
Nevertheless, one thought I have often wondered about regarding John 20:28 (where Thomas says "My Lord and my God [ho theos mou = the god of me]" is why trinitarians don't have a problem if this identifies Jesus as God the Father. Isn't that modalism? ho theos is generally used with reference to "the God" i.e. God the Father. Why would Thomas exclaim "my God" with reference to God the Father when he was convinced of Jesus's resurrection? No wonder David Bentley Hart acknowledges it could have just been a fervent expression.