Biblical PROOF that Jesus Christ IS GOD

by Bibleboy 156 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Bibleboy
    Bibleboy

    Peace.

    jdubla, you are cut. EXIT STAGE LEFT. You are not right for the part. I am trying to achieve 100 posts on this, not 100 slanders. You're Not the right style; not zybo enough...

    NEXT!

    ***
    As for words being changed and left out, Bibleboy, do you think that the NWT is the ONLY bible that does not have perfect translation??
    ***

    Eyebrow. There is no perfect translation, but there ARE better translations. Do I believe in ANY SUPERIOR translation? No. Original texts are far more superior to any translation, and since not translation is perfect, then there can be none which is superior, including the NWT. But there HAVE been changes made in translating the NWT to specifically suit WTS doctrine. eg. the false doctrine that Jesus died on a stake and not a cross -- in the NWT, it will support that false doctrine whereas all other texts to my knowledge say that Jesus died on a cross. It is a whole different can of worms. If you want to talk further then I suggest that you start a new thread on SACRED SCRIPTURE. And in closing, the most important thing about the example I just gave is that Jesus Christ died for the sins of the world for the remission of sins.

    EVERYONE ELSE:

    Please be patient over the next week or two. I am moving from Vancouver, B.C., Canada to Briercrest Bible College, Caronport, Saskatchewan, Canada. email me if there are any immediate questions or comments made in love of course.

    In Peace and Love.

  • dubla
    dubla

    bibleBOY (and all)-

    quote: jdubla, you are cut. EXIT STAGE LEFT. You are not right for the part. I am trying to achieve 100 posts on this, not 100 slanders. You're Not the right style; not zybo enough...

    -i can understand you wanting me to discontinue my posting, i expect that from you mark. usually when someone feels threatened, that is their first line of defense. instead of trying to uphold their own stance, its much easier to resort to "just go away" or "im not listening to you anymore." please understand these are normal responses to someone showing obvious fallacies, inconsistencies, and contradictions in anothers arguments, but i would urge you to reconsider writing me off for that simple reason that i am a threat to your stance. even though it does not surprise me, i still think its unfortunate. and EXIT STAGE LEFT mark? come on, surely you know i will not discontinue posting simply because you do not like me, or ive gotten "under your skin" so to speak by exposing what you are. if you wish, you can plea your case to simon and ask that i be banned, but i would imagine he would re-read my posts and then proceed to laugh in your face for implying that ive been slanderous or unusually cruel. i imagine that you will indeed ignore my posts nonetheless, but as ive said before, youve never really responded in debate style with me anyhow, so it wont really be a big loss.

    as far as you referring to my posts as "slanders", mark, do i really need to repost my last post to you? i think i fully explained and showed that my stance is not one of slander, and i believe that any intelligent person that read it will only agree with what im saying from a debate standpoint. if you wish to continue to refer to my views as slanderous, i will re-explain it to you (but this is getting old, and im starting to wonder if youll ever get the point anyhow). about the only thing ive said that can be construed as slander, might me my various references to your lack of intelligence. if this really bothers you or hurts your feelings, i can, i suppose, bite my tongue, but i must say you have truly brought this on yourself by constantly and obviously showing your ignorance, (your quote on this post being a prime example).

    and last but not least, im "not the right style"? lol, again you make me laugh. how am i not the right style, is it MAYBE because i keep showing everyone the ridiculous nature of your comments? again, refer to my first paragraph regarding one feeling "threatened".

    god bless mark, have a good move!

    aa

  • dubla
    dubla

    pom-

    excellent post. ive been doing some thinking on this myself, this topic of whether or not god was omniscient, and i have to say im leaning toward your view of it which really makes alot of sense, and you layed it out nicely. to answer one of your questions, you could probably start a new thread on it if you so choose, im sure youd get some good responses.

    aa

  • dubla
    dubla

    hairdog-

    let me first start out with LOL, as you are beginning a pattern of inciting my laughter, now, with each and every one of your subsequent posts.

    okay, now that ive caught my breath, i can continue. im not sure which part of your post to dismantle first, youve given me so many options. well lets start with a quote, as is the normal practice. this particular one was in my reference to your constant definitions of exegete, exegesis, etc.....

    quote: Well, by golly aa, I think you are right. It seems to be rather important that for us to successfully communicate with one another, we must first define words that we use. And one of the best places to look for these definitions is in our English and Greek dictionaries, eh? But of course if you have another word source, please let me know what it is so that we can both be operating from the same authoritative source.

    -this is such an obvious and unsuccesful attempt at minimizing the signifigance of my statements, its bordering on hilarious. for one thing, the "reason" i was referencing your constant use and definition of those words wasnt to discount the use of the dictionary at all, but was in actuality a reference to the constant lack of proper context in which you used them. it was, on my part, an attempt at humor. its called sacrasm hairy, and i can give the definition of that one if youd like. secondly, for you to imply that i disagree with your use of the dictionary, or that i would like to use "another word source", is preposterous (and possibly just a poor attempt at sarcasm from you), due to the fact that ive already quoted the dictionary several times myself in order to point out your obvious contradictions. (and you again attempted to suggest i would like to use another word source later in your post saying, "I’m sure you would have a good “reason” to select something else besides an English dictionary, eh?" and AGAIN, this was possibly just another poor attempt at humor on your part, im not entirely sure).

    another one of your quotes, which i would like to shed some light on, maybe this will help you out.........

    quote: Based upon the definitions of “evidence,” you should be able to (finally) see that this is not a humorous statement; it’s reasoning based upon the Bible.

    -i believe when you say i should be able to see "that this is not a humorous statement", you are referring to my last post where i said that your conclusion sounded like at attempt at humor. am i correct in assuming that? you are confused it seems, which does not surprise me in the least. what i said was (and i think what youre responding to),
    "the post that you tagged this ending onto was entirely just an argumentative post trying to scramble and respond to me exposing your OBVIOUS contradictions, and it had NOTHING to do with giving "evidence, as provided by john 1:1, that the word is the eternal being." its an attempt at humor, i see. again, let me say, LOL."
    ...................remember now? okay, lets look at this closely. where in this statement of mine am i referring to the definition of "evidence"? i am not. no, to the contrary what i was referring to was the fact that you put this conclusion on a post that had entirely nothing to do with showing evidence about john 1:1. it had absolutely NOTHING to do with that. all that post was, was an attempt to respond to me breaking down your contradictions, and all of 0% of it pertained to john 1:1. THAT is why i thought you were attempting sarcasm, it had absolutely NOTHING to do with the definition of "evidence", (which btw ive already shown is "proof" just to reiterate). im not sure if youll understand this explanation or not. youve been pretty slow to understand the context of most of my responses, so im guessing no.

    speaking of 0% pertaining to john 1:1, geez, thats almost all of our posts now, isnt it? this is common when discussing the trinity with a trinitarian. (okay, i know were only discussing the deity of the word right now, you dont have to correct me again. but come on, its all about the trinity, isnt it? otherwise it wouldnt be on this particular thread). what i mean to say is, 9 times out of 10, when debating these matters, the trinitarians will veer off the subject, and concentrate more on pointless "side debates" if you will; its perfectly normal, and i expect it. i do commend you on your very first use of cross-referencing other scriptures this time though. let me just say, ITS ABOUT TIME. i know its not usually "the way you do things", and youd rather try and convince someone the meaning of ONE scripture before looking at any others, but maybe youre starting to see the importance of cross-referencing. or maybe im just getting to you with some of my other statements so you felt compelled to respond, who knows. but i do think looking at the context of other scriptures is important, no, essential, for the bible has meaning only as a whole, and as youve said before, one scripture does not and cannot prove a doctrine. ill be reading the scriptures youve quoted and reflecting on the context youre using them in, and trying to decide whether or not you have a valid argument. im sure youll eagerly await my findings.

    I appreciate the opportunity to give evidence, as provided by one of hairdogs favorite secular writings, that evidence and proof are one and the same.

    aa

  • dubla
    dubla

    hairdog-

    well, it didnt take me long to look up and laugh at the joke of a notion you proposed, namely that these scriptures you cited supposedly make it "clear" that before "the beginning" only god existed. ill quote you first before showing the fallacies in your argument.....

    quote: Second (and finally), before the beginning (Genesis 1:1; John 1:1), only God existed. This is clear from John 1:3; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:16.

    -are you serious hairy? lets break down each scripture one at a time, looking specifically for indications that "before the beginning" only god existed, ("the beginning" are obviously the two key words here), shall we?? here we go......

    john 1:3
    All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

    -okay, clearly this scripture states that everything was made/created by god. im not sure where in this scripture though, that is states god didnt create anything before "the beginning". hmmm, hardly a clear proof as you would have us believe. in fact, it sheds little if any light on "the" actual "beginning" referred to in gen. 1:1, does it? next scripture.....

    1 corinthians 8:6
    But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

    -all things come through god, and all things come through jesus.....okay.....but again, im baffled here hairy. where in this scripture is "the beginning" ever reffered to? it isnt, another obvious fallacy in your statement that this scripture makes it "clear" that before the beginning only god existed.......okay, last one, and this is the best example of a scripture used out of context by you.....

    colossians 1:16
    For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

    -AGAIN, for the THIRD time we see a scripture that supposedly makes "clear" that god was the only being in existance during "the beginning", that does not for some reason even mention or allude to "the beginning". hmmmmm, im seeing a pattern here hairdog, are you? and if you arent implying that these scriptures back up this notion, you might want to restate whatever it is that you think they back up. this particular scripture does say that god created all things, but ive already granted you that, thats what i believe too! the key thing were looking for is whether or not it "makes clear, blah blah", im a broken record here.

    and why dont any of these scriptures state, even in a roundabout way, that god was the only being in existance at "the beginning"? because god wasnt the only being in existance, obviously. lets think about this logically (which i realize isnt your strong suit). if the angels, michael and satan included, were created during "the beginning", why was this not part of the account of "the beginning" at genesis 1:1? why would this account detail the creation of all these things, from man, to animals, right down to trees and water, (obviously not in that order), and just mysteriously leave out something as important as all the angelic creatures? think about it, ALL THE ANGELIC CREATURES....surely this was an important creation, wasnt it? so would this make sense to leave out if indeed it was during this detailed account of "the beginning"? of course not. the obvious answer is that the account of "the beginning" doesnt include angelic creatures, because they had already been created!!

    it does not surprise me that you resort to stretching the meaning of scriptures such as these to back up your arguments hairy. in fact, this is an EXTREMELY common practice of trinitarians (which you havent professed to be as of yet, so im only speculating here) during these types of debates. id say it happens at least 99% of the time. meanings get stretched, scriptures get used out of context, etc., etc., the list goes on. this is what happens when you try to explain something that isnt there; when you try to show that the scriptures support a man-made doctrine that the scriptures absolutely do not support.

    hope this helps.

    aa

  • dubla
    dubla

    pom-

    i read through some old posts on this thread today, and obviously you have a unique theory/belief on god and jesus. most of what you say makes alot of sense, linking god and jesus as "one" so to speak, but leaving out the holy ghost (adding this holy spirit into the triune godhead is what the trinitarian always trip on. its just not there in the bible). one could certainly argue more effectively the link of god and jesus than one could argue the whole trinity. i think you do argue this point very effectively.

    i dont agree with everything youve stated, obviously since ive been arguing against jesus having to beginning. you argued that eve came from adam (both finite), just as jesus came from god (both infinite), which seemingly is a valid theory. im wondering though with that comparison, how do you distiguish who came first? i mean, adam came BEFORE eve, correct? does this mean then that god the father came BEFORE god the son, or jesus?

    also, one more question for you.......how do you personally tackle the "begotten" issue? im sure youre aware the word begotten refers directly to being "created", and we all know jesus is begotten of god, yet you do not believe jesus to have been created. is it just as easy as saying when he went down to earth and took human form, at this point he was "begotten" or "created"?

    just wanted to get your thoughts on these ideas....thanks.

    aa

  • dubla
    dubla

    pom- editing error...that was "jesus having NO beginning, not TO beginning"

    aa

  • pomegranate
    pomegranate

    Hi jdubla...

    To answer some of your questions on how I understand the Creator:

    >>im wondering though with that comparison, how do you distiguish who came first? i mean, adam came BEFORE eve, correct? does this mean then that god the father came BEFORE god the son, or jesus?<<

    I believe that man was created in this sequence, with a delay between the male and the female NOT to show a seeming image and likeness of who came first in God (Father and Son), but rather to emphasize for us that "one" is incomplete in creating LIFE. Though by himself Adam was self sufficient, there were things about the male that needed a "match" or a complement, and certainly so if the man was to reproduce himself as was the purpose of man from the beginning, a created being that could create life as could only God.

    We have to remember, that BOTH the man and the woman were FULLY in the mind of God when He created just the man, obviously by what God put between the man's legs. As far as God was concerned, she already was alive. To me, it seems more to paint a picture of; nothing is complete without two. The two are of the EXACT same stuff as the one. The two came apart, then the two reunite and become one. This is really beautiful stuff I think. As is God, as is man.

    I believe also, that a woman carrying a child is an intentional depiction of what God "looked like" to spirit creatures as they came into existence. They only knew God as one spiritual mass. A single entity with one voice. Seemingly, one God being to their spiritual eyes. But in fact this one mass was two beings in one spiritual body.

    I believe we are going to find out that the Father is silent while the Son is the Words. The Father is greater, then the Son is lesser. The Father is the Alpha, the Son the Omega. The Father CANNOT condescend, the Son is the condescending one. All these good complementary opposites are in God as are in us.

    BUT, if the Father chooses to have someone sit at his right hand, shoulder to shoulder, it is the Father ALONE who demands that He wants two Alpha's for a time. If He says Christ may be the Alpha for a day, it is what God wills, and shall be so. The will of God shall be.

    >>how do you personally tackle the "begotten" issue? im sure youre aware the word begotten refers directly to being "created", and we all know jesus is begotten of god, yet you do not believe jesus to have been created. is it just as easy as saying when he went down to earth and took human form, at this point he was "begotten" or "created"?<<

    The word begotten has a lot of lateral understanding. Certainly, begotten could also mean the simple decision on the Father's part from a present tense united spirit body of God, to divide in two. Here's the dictionary:

    be·get

    1. To father; sire.
    2. To cause to exist or occur; produce

    Notice the definition carries the terms to occur or produce.

    Also, suppose it was by the Father's will and power to divide the spirit body for which the Son could exist in while apart from the united body of God Love that previously from eternity bound their spiritual bodies together.

    Also, the term ONLY BEGOTTEN would further emphasize what happened to Christ was unique to him.

    Isa 9:6
    6 For to us a child is born,
    to us a son is given,
    and the government will be on his shoulders.
    And he will be called
    Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
    Everlasting Father
    , Prince of Peace.

    The above cannot be said unless it is true. I believe it is.

    We have two "Fathers."

  • dubla
    dubla

    pom-

    are there others that believe this way...in other words, are you part of a religion that carries these beliefs? once again, id like to say you explained yourself very well. and although i might not immediately agree with your viewpoint, you definitely make it hard to argue against, on a logical reasoning basis. thats the problem with people like hairdog (im not sure if youve been reading our posts or not), and bibleboy.....they leave their viewpoints open (to being exposed with fallacies) way to easily by never being able to EXPLAIN what they believe, logically with reason.....they can only either call it a "mystery", or they can concentrate on one scripture or the greek meaning behind one word to try and prove this trinity that just isnt there. this is where i notice you differ, and this intrigues me as your arguments always MAKE SENSE, which is never true of trinitarians. two, not three, hmmmmm.

    aa

  • Hairdog1937
    Hairdog1937

    aa:

    You said: “…speaking of 0% pertaining to john 1:1, geez, thats almost all of our posts now, isnt it? this is common when discussing the trinity with a trinitarian. (okay, i know were only discussing the deity of the word right now, you dont have to correct me again. but come on, its all about the trinity, isnt it? otherwise it wouldnt be on this particular thread). what i mean to say is, 9 times out of 10, when debating these matters, the trinitarians will veer off the subject, and concentrate more on pointless "side debates" if you will; its perfectly normal, and i expect it.”

    Here are a few comments that refer to your above, quoted statement. In order to discuss the subject of the thread started by Mark, the trinity, I approached it in a manner that I have found to be profitable when objectively examining Scripture. This is referred to as “exegesis” (I know that you remember that word). If one approaches several passages at one time, it becomes less systematic and more cumbersome. I find that, for my simple mind, one verse at a time works well.

    Now some of what I am saying may be repetitious, but I say it again for clarification. As I examine a particular subject one verse at a time, I see what information the verse lends to the matter under discussion. If you prefer, I will be more than happy to classify this discovery as “information” rather than evidence. It seems that such discussion over “evidence” and “proof” has distracted from the subject at hand, so I will thus proceed if you so desire.

    For additional clarification, it is my position that John 1:1 in no way establishes or proves the doctrine of the trinity. For me, it simply supplies “information” that is pertinent to the subject of whether or not the trinity is a Biblical teaching. It is a starting point.

    You said: “i do commend you on your very first use of cross-referencing other scriptures this time though. let me just say, ITS ABOUT TIME. i know its not usually "the way you do things", and youd rather try and convince someone the meaning of ONE scripture before looking at any others, but maybe youre starting to see the importance of cross-referencing.”

    It is not my intent, nor do I possess the ability, to “convince” anyone about a spiritual matter. That is God’s job. And yes, cross-referencing is important, but here are two important points regarding it:

    1. Cross referencing serves a valid purpose once the first passage has been examined and both parties agree to its content/interpretation. If not, then:

    2. Cross-referencing is a dead-end when agreement on a verse (as discussed in point 1) has not been achieved, for one will be attempting to disprove one verse with the other(s). The reason for the attempt to disprove comes from one party maintaining that a single, examined verse establishes the doctrinal teaching (or issue at hand). Why is this so? Because he is operating from a false premise and attempting to influence or convince the other that his premise is truth. There may be other factors that point out the premature application of cross-referencing.

    In your 2nd post of the day, you said:

    “ well, it didnt take me long to look up and laugh at the joke of a notion you proposed, namely that these scriptures you cited supposedly make it "clear" that before "the beginning" only god existed. ill quote you first before showing the fallacies in your argument.....”

    Because of what I’ve stated above regarding the use of cross-referencing, I violated my own rules. I prematurely used it. I was wrong in doing so. Therefore, I apologize for the use of that tactic. Nevertheless, your comments on the cross-referenced passages are worthy of subsequent consideration – but not by me at this time (although I am quite tempted to do so). The “information” from John 1:1 must be first agreed to. Then I (we) could move on.

    quote: Second (and finally), before the beginning (Genesis 1:1; John 1:1), only God existed. This is clear from John 1:3; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:16.

    Then you said: “-are you serious hairy? lets break down each scripture one at a time…”

    Gee, you sound like me. So, Mr. aa, “let’s break down each Scripture one at a time…” Let’s begin with John 1:1.

    Review what the verse says, remembering that what it “says” must first be determined by knowing the language: both English and koine. If either one of us fails to do so, we are refuting both languages and the grammar which interprets them correctly. Then we would be falling into the eisegetical trap. I can’t change the meaning of words to suit my opinion.

    Finally (and rather repetitiously), here is what the verse says:

    1. “In the beginning was the Word:” the Word continually was.

    2. “The Word was with God:” the Word was continually face-to-face with God.

    3. “The Word was God:” the Word continually was God.

    Each of these points can be more specifically and grammatically dissected. I would suggest that we not do so all at once, but one phrase at a time. The reason is that just as with the exegesis of more than one verse at a time, further examination might be impaired by faulty conclusions – eisegesis.

    I know that you are not a Trinitarian and that I am. For the sake of objective examination, I am willing to set aside my belief in the trinity. Are you willing to set aside your belief in the contrary? Should we not examine the Scriptures, carefully, to see whether this matter is so, or to be disregarded?

    This is my suggestion. The choice to do so is yours. If you can’t agree, then further discussion with each other would not be profitable for either of us.

    Hairdog

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