Luke 23:43 the NWT

by Ade 89 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • EasyPrompt
    EasyPrompt

    @Rattigan350...The context of John chapter one shows what John was talking about. When John said "no man has seen God" he was talking about "seeing God in His Heavenly Glory." The context is talking about Jesus having been in heaven, and how Jesus saw Jehovah's Heavenly Glory and explained it. At Exodus 33:20, Jehovah is talking about seeing His Heavenly Glory, but in context a few verses earlier at Exodus 33:11 it says clearly: "Jehovah spoke to Moses face-to-face, just as one man would speak to another man." It's not an idiom.

  • Vanderhoven7
    Vanderhoven7

    Did Jesus go to paradise that day or did he go to the grave or did he go and preach to demons in hell. The grave and hells prison do not equate with paradise.

    Certainly the thief recognized his sin, repented and believed in Jesus recognizing him as Lord.

  • EasyPrompt
    EasyPrompt

    The grave and hells prison do not equate with paradise.

    Certainly the thief recognized his sin, repented and believed in Jesus recognizing him as Lord.

    True, true!

    That day was definitely not Paradise for Jesus, or the man next to him.


    "He died for us, so that whether we stay awake or are asleep, we should live together with him."


    No Paradise yet for any of us - not for Jesus either. And heaven isn't Paradise, that's for sure (how could it be - no parent or friend could have true complete happiness as long as their friends and family on earth are in pain.)

  • Fisherman
    Fisherman

    I skimmed through all the posts but didn’t read them in detail. The Bible says that Jesus was dead for 3 days so obviously the NWT comma is in the right place because Jesus did not go to paradise that day.

  • BoogerMan
    BoogerMan

    @ aqwsed - You said, "they strive to interpret this verse differently."

    I'm so glad that you are not trying to do that! 😂

  • Rattigan350
    Rattigan350

    Fisherman said " The Bible says that Jesus was dead for 3 days so obviously the NWT comma is in the right place because Jesus did not go to paradise that day."

    Right. It is so simple. People worry about commas and ignore the greater understanding of what dead is.

  • Rattigan350
    Rattigan350

    The reason that this saying sits high with alot of people is not because of punctuation, but because people have the Oprah mentality.

    You get to go to heaven.

    You get to go to heaven.

    You get to go to heaven.

    People not only want all Christians to go to heaven, but they want all of Jesus' contemporaries that looked at him, the non-baptized ones, the prechristians like Moses, Elijah, and many others.

  • Fisherman
    Fisherman

    People worry about commas and ignore the greater understanding of what dead is.

    Irrelevant. Jesus did not ascend into heaven until much later after his resurrection( John 20:17) so it is axiomatic that the evil doer did not go to heaven or paradise that day.

  • Sea Breeze
    Sea Breeze

    13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

    Jesus was in heaven at the same time he was on earth.

    Why? Because he is a tripartite being like us. Only his spirit was God almighty, which is not like us.

    …can’t pick and choose scriptures

  • Rattigan350
    Rattigan350

    Sea Breeze The KJV says that but many others do not.

    NKJV - “No one has ascended to heaven but He who came down from heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in heaven. [ftn] NU-Text omits who is in heaven.

    NIV - No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man.

    ESV - No one has ascended into heaven except he who descended from heaven, the Son of Man. The footnote says "Some manuscripts add who is in heaven"

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