I'm beginning to have some doubts about my doubts. This subject is one of them.
Many argue that it is unfair, unloving, and unjust for God to destroy 99.9% of all mankind at Armageddon. But didn't this happen before in the days of Noah? At this point some may argue that the flood never happened. I'm interested in answers from a point of view that the bible is inspired and infallable. It is with this premise (whether or not some of you may say is false) that I'd like to discuss this.
If Noah's flood destroyed 99.9% of mankind, then why is it so hard to accept the same will happen at Armageddon?