I have noticed that every non-Trinitarian I have ever discussed the Bible with on this Website, could not stand the idea that Jesus Christ is the Creator, as Hebrews 1:10 clearly shows.
Someone HAS explained Hebrews 1:10 to you… but you fail to see the TRUTH in that explanation because of YOUR assertion that the book of Hebrews… was “inspired” and therefore, infallible. And yet, the very fact that although it APPEARS that Hebrews 1:10 is speaking about my LORD… the FACT that it quotes Psalm 102:25, which Psalm was spoken BY MY LORD… OF the Father… shows you its fallibility. You, like others… subscribe the Psalms… which WERE inspired… entirely to David as the speaker. You are in error… and if you would condescend to READ them… from beginning to end… then in that case, you would understand WHO is being quoted at Hebrews 1:10… and the circumstances.
They could not stand the belief that we are supposed to honor Jesus equally with The Father, even though Jesus Himself said that all people should do that very thing at John 5:23!
Rubbish. This verse simply takes into account those… LIKE THE WTBTS… who honor the Father… WITHOUT honoring the Son. Those who BYPASS the Son… who ignore the exhortation as Psalm 2:12 to kiss… the SON. Why should we kiss and honor the Son? Because “to him that calls for the honor, honor”… and because he is the One LIFTED UP by God… to be gazed upon so as to “KEEP living.” Yet, it was MOSES… who lifted up the copper serpent; it did not lift itself up… nor did Moses lift himself up. And JUST like Moses lifted up the copper, so the Son of Man was lifted up… BYGOD.
What you and others FAIL to get the sense of is that my Lord did not need to become a “son”… if he and God were one and the same. But I will show YOU… from the BIBLE… where your errors are, based on what YOU state, below. However, I must also say to you that what I will show you FROM THE BIBLE… is not mine, but that which has been given ME… from my Lord… to show YOU. Had you gone directly to HIM, however, you… and those like you… would not NEED the Bible… or the written Law… the “tutor”… leading to Christ. You COULD have gone directly to HIM, just as he had invited you – John 7:37, 38; John 5:39, 40
· Not one Verse in the entire Bible says that Jesus Christ was ever created.
You are in error - Proverbs 8:22, which is corroborated by Revelation 3:14 – Note, my Lord was PRODUCED… the BEGINNING of the creation… by God.
* Not one Verse in the entire Bible says that Jesus Christ is not God Almighty.
Again, you err - Luke 1:31, 32, 35 – Note, my Lord… was also… MARY’s son; was he also, then, Mary? If by means of being God’s SON… he is GOD… then by means of being MARY’s son… would he not also be Mary?
* Not one Verse in the entire Bible says that Jesus Christ should not be worshiped as God.
Another error - Matthew 4:10; Luke 4:8 – My Lord himself is recorded to have quoted SCRIPTURE which says “JAH alone is to be worshipped.” Why? Because JAH… is the God that HE (my Lord) worshipped. For JAH… is HIS God… and he (Christ)… ours.
* Not one Verse in the entire Bible says that Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel.
On this, we absolutely agree. Michael… is not my Lord… but one of the two (2) cherub that was “covering”… the Ark of the Covenant. He is an angel of the Ark… or arkangel… whose voice… is like a trumpet. He is the angel who gave John the Revelation, which Christ gave to HIM… and who told John NOT to fall down and worship HIM… but to worship… God – Revelation 1:10, 15; 4:1; 22:9
* Not one Verse in the entire Bible says that Jesus Christ should not be prayed to as God.
You are in error – While we may SPEAK to Christ… all day long… wherever we are… when we SPEAK to God… my Lord taught that we should do so IN PRIVATE… and that it is THROUGH HIM that we must approach. And it is done in the manner of Joseph… and Pharaoh(*), as well as the ancient arrangement of the Israelite priesthood: one MUST… go through the High Priest – Matthew 6:9-13; John 14:6; John 10:1-3
*The Bible does say that Jesus should be honored equally with The Father
But THAT… is because the SON… was APPOINTED to such position of honor… BY… the Father. “All authority” was GIVEN him – he did not originally possess it. Matthew 28:18; John 17:1-26
* The Bible does say that all things were created by, through, and for Jesus Christ.
You are in error - The Bible says… that all things were created… by GOD… alone… USING… Christ as the means for such creation… THROUGH him… and that such creation… was brought into existence… FOR him. The word “by” is a mistransliteration of the Greek word that also means “by means of”, which you yourself attested to by posting the word meanings that you did.
* The Bible does say that Jesus Christ was God in the Flesh.
Again, you err – You would have these people believe that the Bible says, “And God… became flesh,” when it TRUTH it says that my Lord, “the WORD… became flesh”… and further clarifies WHO that Word is, because it goes ON to say “and resided among us and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs… to an only-begotten SON… FROM A FATHER…” - John 1:14
And the Revelation, which WAS inspired… also tells us who that Word is. Revelation 19:13
I'm not sure who you are referring to when you said "at one point we can refer to "wisdom" as my Lord and a "master worker,"... yet, when such "worker" SAYS he was PRODUCED... we question that it is indeed him of whom we are speaking."
You must go back and re-read the posts, then…
If I am not mistaken, you never responded to my questions I asked you about Proverbs Chapter 8 and "Wisdom".
My apology, for I did not see your question, truly. Why should I believe that "Wisdom" in Chapter 8 is Jesus?
You do not HAVE to believe anything. But HE himself says that it is: HE is the One brought forth… with labor pains. Proverbs 8:24, 25; Revelation 12:2
What you and many others cannot see... yet... is that ALL of this… is about two (2) men, two (2) women… and the children they bring forth:
1. A “good ‘man’”, JAH… the Most Holy One of Israel, the Almighty God and Creator of Heaven and Earth…
2. His “free” wife, a “woman”… the spirit realm… Jerusalem Above… or “Sarah”… the NEW Covenant – who is initially “barren” but eventually has children… but in comparison, whose children are few… but, since their MOTHER is “free”… THEY are “free”… “born”… NOT in the manner of the flesh… but in the manner of the SPIRIT… by means of a PROMISE…
3. His “slave” wife, another “woman”… the physical realm… Earth… or “Hagar”… the OLD Covenant – whose children are first and more numerous… and since their MOTHER is a “slave”… THEY are slaves… born… in the manner of the FLESH…
4. Another “man”, a wicked one, the Adversary… whose runs around sowing HIS “seed”… with the “slave” woman… so as to produce “weeds”… which weeds try to CHOKE the “wheat” of the “good” man’s “seed”… and which weeds, because they have VESSELS that look JUST LIKE WHEAT… are often mistaken FOR wheat… but in fact are not…
5. The child(ren) that these bring forth - wheat… or weeds – starting with Adam (a weed, by means of the "father" that "begat" him)… and Christ (wheat, by means of the "father" that "begat" HIM). One is either the offspring of ADAM… the Son born to the slave woman by means of the FLESH… and therefore enslaved to the flesh... or one is the offspring of the Christ… born to the FREE woman… by means of a promise... and therefore "set free" by that One!
If you can grasp this… get the SENSE of this truth… perhaps you will begin to see other truths!
"Wisdom" is referred to as "she" and "her". Why is that?
Because the Hebrew word “wisdom” is a feminine word, just as “casa”… which means HOUSE… is a feminine word in Spanish. Like in English, when we refer to a “ship” as a “she” – in this case, although the article is referred as being feminine, the WORD ship is NOT feminine: a ship... is not a woman... it is not IN TRUTH... a "her" or a "she". It is the WORD that is feminine... not the ARTICLE about which it speaks.
And this is what a great many things "written" boils down to: the WORDS... and their transLITERATION. What the word LITERALLY meant... and what it is translated to mean. "Wisdom" is NOT feminine in English; indeed, in ENGLISH... it is neither masculine OR feminine... for it is intangible.
Jesus is ALWAYS referred to as "He" and "Him" all the way through the Bible.
Except when he refers to himself as “wisdom”. In Greek, the word is “sophia” – by means of the “a” on the end, it is a FEMININE word. But, if I were to say to, ummmmm… say, Noko, who I now know to be male, “You are wise, dear Noko, and you have wisdom in you,” would I being saying that he was female and had a woman in him? Truly? Think about it. It’s is WORDS that are throwing you off! That is why I stress… as my Lord stressed to ME… COME TO HIM – HE can explain to you what was TRULY meant. For earthling man… is… fallible. Particularly in his interpretations and transliterations.
And, if there was ever a time when "Wisdom" did not exist, then that means God did not have wisdom at some point.
You are in error. The ONLY thing that did not have a start... was God. Wisdom… was IN God... and was PRODUCED… brought INTO EXISTENCE… by God. It... he... came OUT of God... so as to be brought INTO EXISTENCE. If wisdom is not MANIFESTED… then… it does not EXIST. If it is not PRODUCED… brought into EXISTENCE… then it cannot be MANIFESTED. YOU... have children IN you... by means of having "seed" in you (if a man)... or eggs... if a woman. They are IN you. However, it is not until a child is PRODUCED... that such comes... into existence. Think, UnDf’d. THINK. Also, if "Wisdom" is Jesus, then who is "Prudence"?
Ummmmm… “prudence”? I dunno, someone from the Mayflower? I don’t know of what you speak. I THINK you are actually referring to the same thing... for in ENGLISH, the two words, wisdom and prudence, have pretty much the same connotation.
It is the Jehovah's Witnesses that claim Jesus is the "Master Worker" in Proverbs Chapter 8.
They are in error. My Lord… was a master FOSTERLING… or LEARNER. He is the One to whom ALL the ways of God were TAUGHT… so that HE could “take it from here, Son.”
Several Bible Translations do not say that "Wisdom" was "produced".
And yet, several do. Which one, then, are you to believe? Let me tell you how I know the TRUTH about this:
My Lord took me to the 8 th Chapter of Proverbs… and told me to read. I did. And I thought I read just fine. Didn’t quite understand EVERYTHING… but I thought I had a fairly good grasp of what was being said. Until my Lord said to me:
“Now, be still… and let ME read to YOU.”
What?! He's gonna read to me?! And he did. In his “low tone”… took me through it… verse… by… verse… as he has on so many other occasions. And that is one of the earliest ways I learned to hear: I can read and lean on my OWN understanding… or I can move myself out of the way… and let HIM read and tell me. For as he has said to ME: “Everything I will tell you is written; however, not everything that is written is what I will tell you.” Thus, it is how I have learned Hebrew and Aramaic to the extent I have: he TELLS me what the words truly mean.
Instead, the King James Version reads: Proverbs 8:22: The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.
But it would still mean the SAME thing - my Father DID possess my Lord. My Lord CAME out of my Father - His SEED. That is why vegetables are called "produce"! They are the "product" of the land. My Lord... is the "product" of my Father, His SEED... which was first possessed... and then "produced" - the TRUE VINE... the ROOT (of Jesse)... which ROOT... is SPROUT! And vines, roots, sprouts... come from SEEDS. A man's seed... is His semen... his PROGENY. It is where his CHILDREN come from... when combined with the egg of his WIFE.
(And note, a "wife" is not limited to the one he is legally married to... but includes those with whom he is PHYSICALLY "married" to... "connected" with by means of the sexual act... so that they become "one" flesh. That is why when speaking of overseers, it said "husbands of ONE wife" not meaning one at a time, but ONE... ever.)
1. Adam, as a MAN... was "produced"... with the Earth... the physical realm... as his "mother"... and was half physical/half spiritual. For his mother was physical, but his father spiritual.
2. Christ, as a MAN... was "produced"... with Mary... a fleshly woman... as his "mother"... and was half physical/half spirit. For his mother was physical, but his father spiritual.
3. Christ, as a SPIRIT... was "produced"... with Jerusalem Above... the spirit realm... as his "mother"... and was ALL SPIRIT. For his mother was SPIRITUAL... as was his FATHER.
Thus, it does not MATTER which version, UnDf’d… TRULY! What MATTERS… is the TRUTH. What did the SPIRIT mean… when it had the words written DOWN? THAT… is what MATTERS. And there is only ONE way you can know: John 5:39, 40.
As regards my reference to Joseph and Pharaoh, above, it is like this:
Pharaoh was a great man… which a great amount of wealth. Yet, because of his good deed in helping Pharaoh to prepare for what could have been disaster in his land, a younger one, Joseph, was appointed over ALL of Pharaoh’s belongings. There was NO ONE greater than this young man – save Pharaoh himself. Joseph… was SECOND in command… and could just that command to do ANYTHING he wished… for he was even given Pharaoh’s SIGNET RING… to speak and sign on behalf of Pharaoh.
Thus, if ANYONE… wanted ANYTHING… in the lands of Pharaoh… such one… HAD… to go to… JOSEPH… to get it! NO ONE, except Joseph himself… could go… to Pharaoh. You want some of Pharaoh’s grain? Go to Joseph. You want some of Pharaoh’s water? Go to Joseph. And by means of that signet ring… Joseph… could DISPENSE… ANYTHING… that belonged… TO PHARAOH. By means of this AUTHORITY… Joseph… was… in effect… “Pharaoh”. Technically… but not literally. Joseph’s POWER… COULD BE REMOVED… but only… BY Pharaoh!
Okay, so what if you decided you didn’t WANT to go to Joseph? Could you just go to Pharaoh? What if you decided you didn’t AGREE with Joseph? Could you go to Pharaoh? What if you decided that YOU… didn’t NEED… Joseph? Could you eat or drink in Pharaoh’s lands?
But now let me ask you: By means of this arrangement, does it not appear that for all intents and purposes Joseph… HAS THE SAME POWER AND AUTHORITY… as Pharaoh himself? But that that make HIM Pharaoh? Or is it not that there is still one GREATER than Joseph, the one who gave HIM such power and authority… and thereby… can also TAKE AWAY such power and authority?
That is why is says that ALL things have been subjected to my Lord… EXCEPT the One who SUBJECTED all things… TO him.
Hear… and get the SENSE of it.
A slave of Christ,
SJ